Pass Exam Questions Efficiently With N10-009 Questions (2024)
N10-009 Questions - Truly Beneficial For Your CompTIA Exam
CompTIA N10-009 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Topic | Details |
|---|---|
| Topic 1 |
|
| Topic 2 |
|
| Topic 3 |
|
| Topic 4 |
|
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following network topologies contains a direct connection between every node in the network?
- A. Hub-and-spoke
- B. Mesh
- C. Point-to-point
- D. Star
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a mesh topology, every node is directly connected to every other node. This provides high redundancy and reliability, as there are multiple paths for data to travel between nodes. This topology is often used in networks where high availability is crucial.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is most commonly associated with many systems sharing one IP address in the public IP-addressing space?
- A. VIP
- B. NAT
- C. NAT64
- D. PAT
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: Port Address Translation (PAT) allows multiple internal devices to share a single public IP address by assigning each device a unique port number. This is the most common method used in environments where many systems need internet access but there are limited public IP addresses.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A client wants to increase overall security after a recent breach. Which of the following would be best to implement? (Select two.)
- A. Least privilege network access
- B. Dynamic inventeries
- C. Subnet range limits
- D. Central policy management
- E. Configuration drift prevention
- F. Zero-touch provisioning
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
To increase overall security after a recent breach, implementing least privilege network access and central policy management are effective strategies.
* Least Privilege Network Access: This principle ensures that users and devices are granted only the access necessary to perform their functions, minimizing the potential for unauthorized access or breaches. By limiting permissions, the risk of an attacker gaining access to critical parts of the network is reduced.
* Central Policy Management: Centralized management of security policies allows for consistent and streamlined implementation of security measures across the entire network. This helps in quickly responding to security incidents, ensuring compliance with security protocols, and reducing the chances of misconfigurations.
Network References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses network security principles, including least privilege and policy management.
* Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on implementing security policies and access controls.
* Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers strategies for enhancing network security and managing policies effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following should a network administrator configure when adding OT devices to an organization's architecture?
- A. Network segmentation
- B. Data-at-rest encryption
- C. Honeynet
- D. Time-based authentication
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets. This is particularly important when integrating OT (Operational Technology) devices to ensure that these devices are isolated from other parts of the network. Segmentation helps protect the OT devices from potential threats and minimizes the impact of any security incidents. It also helps manage traffic and improves overall network performance.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following attacks utilizes a network packet that contains multiple network tags?
- A. ARP poisoning
- B. MAC flooding
- C. DNS spoofing
- D. VLAN hopping
Answer: D
Explanation:
VLAN hopping is an attack where an attacker crafts packets with multiple VLAN tags, allowing them to traverse VLAN boundaries improperly. This can result in gaining unauthorized access to network segments that are supposed to be isolated. The other options do not involve the use of multiple network tags. MAC flooding aims to overwhelm a switch's MAC address table, DNS spoofing involves forging DNS responses, and ARP poisoning involves sending fake ARP messages.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following is the most closely associated with segmenting compute resources within a single cloud account?
- A. VPC
- B. laaS
- C. Hybrid cloud
- D. Network security group
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) is most closely associated with segmenting compute resources within a single cloud account. A VPC allows you to define a virtual network that closely resembles a traditional network, complete with subnets, route tables, and gateways. This segmentation enables the isolation of different parts of a network within a cloud environment, ensuring security and efficient resource management. VPCs are a key component in many cloud infrastructures, providing the flexibility to manage and control network settings and resources.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Cloud Models section.
NEW QUESTION # 30
A network administrator needs to change where the outside DNS records are hosted. Which of the following records should the administrator change the registrar to accomplish this task?
- A. NS
- B. PTR
- C. CNAME
- D. SOA
Answer: A
Explanation:
To change where the outside DNS records are hosted, the network administrator needs to update the NS (Name Server) records at the domain registrar. NS records specify the authoritative name servers for a domain, directing where DNS queries should be sent.
* NS (Name Server) Records: These records indicate the servers that are authoritative for a domain.
Changing the NS records at the registrar points DNS resolution to the new hosting provider.
* SOA (Start of Authority): Contains administrative information about the domain, including the primary name server.
* PTR (Pointer) Records: Used for reverse DNS lookups, mapping IP addresses to domain names.
* CNAME (Canonical Name) Records: Used to alias one domain name to another, not relevant for changing DNS hosting.
Network References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses DNS records, their purposes, and how to manage them.
* Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on DNS management and the role of different DNS record types.
* Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains DNS records and their configuration for domain management.
NEW QUESTION # 31
A VoIP phone is plugged in to a port but cannot receive calls. Which of the following needs to be done on the port to address the issue?
- A. Trunk all VLANs on the port.
- B. Disable VLANs.
- C. Tag the traffic to voice VLAN.
- D. Configure the native VLAN.
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Understanding VoIP and VLANs:
* VoIP (Voice over IP) phones often use VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) to separate voice traffic from data traffic for improved performance and security.
* Tagging Traffic to Voice VLAN:
* Voice VLAN Configuration:The port on the switch needs to be configured to tag traffic for the specific voice VLAN. This ensures that voice packets are prioritized and handled correctly.
* VLAN Tagging:VLAN tagging allows the switch to identify and separate voice traffic from other types of traffic on the network, reducing latency and jitter for VoIP communications.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* Trunk all VLANs on the port:Trunking all VLANs is typically used for links between switches, not for individual device ports.
* Configure the native VLAN:The native VLAN is for untagged traffic and does not address the need for separating and prioritizing voice traffic.
* Disable VLANs:Disabling VLANs would mix voice and data traffic, leading to potential performance issues and lack of traffic separation.
* Implementation:
* Configure the switch port connected to the VoIP phone to tag the traffic for the designated voice VLAN, ensuring proper network segmentation and quality of service.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials on VLAN configuration and VoIP implementation.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following protocols has a default administrative distance value of 90?
- A. RIP
- B. EIGRP
- C. OSPF
- D. BGP
Answer: B
Explanation:
EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) has a default administrative distance (AD) value of 90 for internal routes. The administrative distance is used to rate the trustworthiness of routing information received from different routing protocols. EIGRP, developed by Cisco, has an AD of 90, which is lower than that of RIP (120) and OSPF (110), making it more preferred if multiple protocols provide a route to the same destination.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following is created to illustrate the effectiveness of wireless networking coverage in a building?
- A. Logical diagram
- B. Layer 3 network diagram
- C. Service-level agreement
- D. Heat map
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Definition of Heat Maps:
* A heat map is a graphical representation of data where individual values are represented by colors.
In the context of wireless networking, a heat map shows the wireless signal strength in different areas of a building.
* Purpose of a Heat Map:
* Heat maps are used to illustrate the effectiveness of wireless networking coverage, identify dead zones, and optimize the placement of access points (APs) to ensure adequate coverage and
* performance.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* Logical Diagram: Represents the logical connections and relationships within the network.
* Layer 3 Network Diagram: Focuses on the routing and IP addressing within the network.
* Service-Level Agreement (SLA): A contract that specifies the expected service levels between a service provider and a customer.
* Creation and Use:
* Heat maps are created using specialized software or tools that measure wireless signal strength throughout the building. The data collected is then used to generate a visual map, guiding network administrators in optimizing wireless coverage.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ certification materials and wireless network planning guides.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Before using a guest network, an administrator requires users to accept the terms of use Which of the following is the best way to accomplish this goal?
- A. Autonomous access point
- B. Captive portal
- C. WPA2 encryption
- D. Pre-shared key
Answer: B
Explanation:
A captive portal is a web page that users must view and interact with before being granted access to a network.
It is commonly used in guest networks to enforce terms of use agreements. When a user connects to the network, they are redirected to this portal where they must accept the terms of use before proceeding. This method ensures that users are aware of and agree to the network's policies, making it the best choice for this scenario. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A network administrator needs to add 255 useable IP addresses to the network. A /24 is currently in use.
Which of the following prefixes would fulfill this need?
- A. /32
- B. /29
- C. /25
- D. /23
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: A /23 subnet provides 512 total addresses, of which 510 are usable (subtracting 2 for network and broadcast addresses). This would satisfy the need for 255 additional addresses.
NEW QUESTION # 36
A network administrator is configuring access points for installation in a dense environment where coverage is often overlapping. Which of the following channel widths should the administrator choose to help minimize interference in the 2.4GHz spectrum?
- A. 80MHz
- B. 160MHz
- C. 20MHz
- D. 40MHz
- E. 11MHz
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the 2.4GHz spectrum, channels are spaced 5MHz apart but have a bandwidth of 20MHz, resulting in overlapping channels. To minimize interference, especially in a dense environment where access point coverage overlaps, a narrower channel width of 20MHz should be used. Using wider channel widths like 40MHz, 80MHz, or 160MHz in the 2.4GHz band will increase the overlap and interference. The 20MHz channel width provides a good balance between performance and minimal interference.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Wireless Networks section.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Before using a guest network, an administrator requires users to accept the terms of use Which of the following is the best way to accomplish this goal?
- A. Autonomous access point
- B. Captive portal
- C. WPA2 encryption
- D. Pre-shared key
Answer: B
Explanation:
A captive portal is a web page that users must view and interact with before being granted access to a network. It is commonly used in guest networks to enforce terms of use agreements. When a user connects to the network, they are redirected to this portal where they must accept the terms of use before proceeding. This method ensures that users are aware of and agree to the network's policies, making it the best choice for this scenario. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.
NEW QUESTION # 38
A virtual machine has the following configuration:
*IPv4 address: 169.254.10.10
*Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
The virtual machine can reach colocated systems but cannot reach external addresses on the Internet. Which of the following Is most likely the root cause?
- A. TheDNS server is unreachable.
- B. Thesubnet mask is incorrect.
- C. TheIP address is an RFC1918 private address.
- D. TheDHCP server is offline.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Understanding the 169.254.x.x Address:
* An IPv4 address in the range of 169.254.x.x is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address, assigned when a DHCP server is unavailable.
* DHCP Server Offline:
* APIPA Assignment:When a device cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, it assigns itself an APIPA address to enable local network communication. This allows communication with other devices on the same local subnet but not with external networks.
* Resolution:Ensure the DHCP server is operational. Check for connectivity issues between the virtual machine and the DHCP server, and verify the DHCP server settings.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* The subnet mask is incorrect:The subnet mask 255.255.0.0 is appropriate for the 169.254.x.x range and does not prevent external access by itself.
* The IP address is an RFC1918 private address:RFC1918 addresses are private IP ranges (10.x.x.x, 172.16.x.x-172.31.x.x, 192.168.x.x) but 169.254.x.x is not one of them.
* The DNS server is unreachable:While this could affect name resolution, it would not prevent the assignment of a non-APIPA address or local network communication.
* Troubleshooting Steps:
* Verify the DHCP server's status and connectivity.
* Restart the DHCP service if necessary.
* Renew the IP lease on the virtual machine using commands such asipconfig /renew(Windows) ordhclient(Linux).
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials on IP addressing and DHCP troubleshooting.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following can support a jumbo frame?
- A. Switch
- B. Hub
- C. Access point
- D. Bridge
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Definition of Jumbo Frames:
* Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames with more than 1500 bytes of payload, typically up to 9000 bytes. They are used to improve network performance by reducing the overhead caused by smaller frames.
* Why Switches Support Jumbo Frames:
* Switches are network devices designed to manage data packets and can be configured to support jumbo frames. This capability enhances throughput and efficiency, particularly in high-performance networks and data centers.
* Incompatibility of Other Devices:
* Access Point:Primarily handles wireless communications and does not typically support jumbo frames.
* Bridge:Connects different network segments but usually operates at standard Ethernet frame
* sizes.
* Hub:A simple network device that transmits packets to all ports without distinguishing between devices, incapable of handling jumbo frames.
* Practical Application:
* Enabling jumbo frames on switches helps in environments where large data transfers are common, such as in storage area networks (SANs) or large-scale virtualized environments.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ course materials and networking hardware documentation.
NEW QUESTION # 40
A network administrator wants to configure a backup route in case the primary route fails. A dynamic routing protocol is not installed on the router. Which of the following routing features should the administrator choose to accomplish this task?
- A. Hop count
- B. Neighbor adjacency
- C. Link state flooding
- D. Administrative distance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Introduction to Administrative Distance
Administrative distance (AD) is a value used by routers to rank routes from different routing protocols. AD represents the trustworthiness of the source of the route. Lower AD values are more preferred. If a router has multiple routes to a destination from different sources, it will choose the route with the lowest AD.
Static Routes and Backup Routes
When a dynamic routing protocol is not used, static routes can be employed. Static routes are manually configured routes. To ensure a backup route, multiple static routes to the same destination can be configured with different AD values.
Configuring Static Routes with Administrative Distance
The primary route is configured with a lower AD value, making it the preferred route. The backup route is configured with a higher AD value. In the event of the primary route failure, the router will then use the backup route.
Example Configuration:
plaintext
Copy code
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1 1
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 10
In the above example, 192.168.1.0/24 is the destination network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop IP address for the primary route with an AD of 1.
10.0.0.2 is the next-hop IP address for the backup route with an AD of 10.
Verification:
After configuration, use the show ip route command to verify that the primary route is in use and the backup route is listed as a candidate for use if the primary route fails.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ guide explains the concept of administrative distance and its use in static routing configuration (see page Ref 9fasic Configuration Commands).
NEW QUESTION # 41
SIMULATION
Users are unable to access files on their department share located on flle_server 2. The network administrator has been tasked with validating routing between networks hosting workstation A and file server 2.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each router to review output, identity any Issues, and configure the appropriate solution If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of trie simulation, please clickthe reset All button; A diagram of a router Description automatically generated
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution configuration below in Explanation.
NEW QUESTION # 42
To reduce costs and increase mobility, a Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to adopt cloud services for the organization and its affiliates. To reduce the impact for users, the CTO wants key services to run from the on-site data center and enterprise services to run in the cloud. Which of thefollowing deployment models is the best choice for the organization?
- A. Private
- B. SaaS
- C. Public
- D. Hybrid
Answer: D
Explanation:
A hybrid cloud deployment model is the best choice for the CTO's requirements. It allows the organization to run key services from the on-site data center while leveraging the cloud for enterprise services. This approach provides flexibility, scalability, and cost savings, while also minimizing disruptions to users by keeping critical services local. The hybrid model integrates both private and public cloud environments, offering the benefits of both.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials and cloud computing principles.
NEW QUESTION # 43
A research facility is expecting to see an exponential increase in global network traffic in the near future. The offices are equipped with 2.5Gbps fiber connections from the ISP, but the facility is currently only utilizing
1Gbps connections. Which of the following would need to be configured in order to use the ISP's connection speed?
- A. Link aggregation
- B. Network address translation
- C. 802.1Q tagging
- D. Port duplex
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Understanding Link Aggregation:
* Definition: Link aggregation combines multiple network connections into a single logical link to increase bandwidth and provide redundancy.
* Usage in High-Bandwidth Scenarios:
* Combining Links: By aggregating multiple 1Gbps connections, the facility can utilize the full 2.5 Gbps bandwidth provided by the ISP.
* Benefits: Enhanced throughput, load balancing, and redundancy, ensuring better utilization of available bandwidth.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* 802.1Q Tagging: Used for VLAN tagging, which does not affect the physical bandwidth utilization.
* Network Address Translation (NAT): Used for IP address translation, not related to link speed or bandwidth aggregation.
* Port Duplex: Refers to the mode of communication (full or half duplex) on a port, not the aggregation of bandwidth.
* Implementation:
* Configure link aggregation (often referred to as LACP - Link Aggregation Control Protocol) on network devices to combine multiple physical links into one logical link.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials on network configuration and link aggregation.
NEW QUESTION # 44
A customer needs six usable IP addresses. Which of the following best meets this requirement?
- A. 255.255.255.224
- B. 255.255.255.128
- C. 255.255.255.240
- D. 255.255.255.192
Answer: C
Explanation:
To meet the requirement of six usable IP addresses, the subnet mask 255.255.255.240 (also represented as /28) is the best fit. A /28 subnet provides 16 total IP addresses, out of which 14 are usable (the first address is the network address, and the last address is the broadcast address). This meets and exceeds the requirement for six usable IP addresses, ensuring there are enough addresses for future expansion if needed. The other options provide either too few or too many addresses for this specific requirement.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - IP Addressing section.
NEW QUESTION # 45
......
Truly Beneficial For Your CompTIA Exam: https://www.itcertmagic.com/CompTIA/real-N10-009-exam-prep-dumps.html
Download CompTIA N10-009 Sample Questions: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1fszk8lFGadX3yZPek2jJ1P6MGRHEQc7I