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The CySA+ certification exam, also known as the CS0-002 exam, is the latest version of the certification exam. CS0-002 exam consists of 85 multiple-choice and performance-based questions that test the candidate's knowledge and skills in various areas of cybersecurity. CS0-002 exam is designed to assess the candidate's ability to identify and mitigate cybersecurity risks and threats.
What is CompTIA CS0-002 Exam
CompTIA CS0-002 exam is a CompTIA A+ Certification Exam, the second exam required of the two-exam sequence required for this certification. This exam is designed to validate skills in PC hardware and software troubleshooting, installation, and configuration of desktop PCs. Stuck in the middle of your study for the CompTIA CS0-002 exam? Then you are at the right place. Here we provide the advantage of knowledge. Levels of questions are arranged to cover topic objectives, so you'll have an edge in your preparation. The most important topics are covered in depth, so you have a good base for your preparation. Issue type is arranged to cover all topics of the exam, so you will not be surprised in the actual exam. It will be easy to answer even tricky questions. Miner 4Test has been committed to be your best choice for IT certification exam preparation. CompTIA CS0-002 exam dumps are the right way to success in your exam. Aware of your needs, we cover all exam topics, so you will be ready for your CompTIA CS0-002 exam. Scan our articles and prepare for your exam. Machine of the product is of the latest version. Traffic is running smoothly, so you will not worry about the quality of the product. All the products are checked thoroughly before posting. Reviews are collected after the test. Thus, you will receive the most updated product. Received the product and find it's not the latest version? Rdns, crs, msa are all coped with it. We will update the content in time. It's not that huge task to do.
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CompTIA CS0-002 (CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification) is a highly valued certification exam for cybersecurity analysts. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam covers a wide range of topics that are essential for effective cybersecurity analysis, and passing CS0-002 exam demonstrates an individual's ability to analyze security risks and develop effective strategies to mitigate those risks. Individuals who are interested in advancing their careers in cybersecurity should consider pursuing this certification and taking advantage of the many training programs and study materials that are available.
NEW QUESTION # 142
A security analyst is trying to determine if a host is active on a network. The analyst first attempts the following:
The analyst runs the following command next:
Which of the following would explain the difference in results?
- A. The routing tables for ping and hping3 were different.
- B. hping3 is returning a false positive.
- C. The original ping command needed root permission to execute.
- D. ICMP is being blocked by a firewall.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 143
While conoXicting a cloud assessment, a security analyst performs a Prowler scan, which generates the following within the report:
Based on the Prowler report, which of the following is the BEST recommendation?
- A. Delete Cloud Dev access key 1
- B. Delete access key 1.
- C. Delete access key 2.
- D. Delete BusinessUsr access key 1.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 144
A security analyst has been alerted to several emails that show evidence an employee is planning malicious activities that involve employee PII on the network before leaving the organization. The security analyst's BEST response would be to coordinate with the legal department and:
- A. senior leadership
- B. the human resources department
- C. the public relations department
- D. law enforcement
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 145
A cybersecurity analyst is investigating a potential incident affecting multiple systems on a company's internal network. Although there is a negligible impact to performance, the following symptom present on each of the affected systems:
* Existence of a new and unexpected svchost exe process
* Persistent, outbound TCP/IP connections to an unknown external host with routine keep-alives transferred
* DNS query logs showing successful name resolution for an Internet-resident dynamic DNS domain If this situation remains unresolved, which of the following will MOST likely occur?
- A. An adversary may leverage the affected hosts to reconfigure the company's router ACLs.
- B. The adversary may attempt to perform a man-in-the-middle attack.
- C. The affected hosts may participate in a coordinated DDoS attack upon command
- D. Key files on the affected hosts may become encrypted and require ransom payment for unlock.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 146
A security analyst is evaluating two vulnerability management tools for possible use in an organization. The analyst set up each of the tools according to the respective vendor's instructions and generated a report of vulnerabilities that ran against the same target server.
Tool A reported the following:
Tool B reported the following:
Which of the following BEST describes the method used by each tool? (Choose two.)
- A. Tool B is agent based.
- B. Tool A is unauthenticated.
- C. Tool B utilized machine learning technology.
- D. Tool A is agent based.
- E. Tool B is unauthenticated.
- F. Tool A used fuzzing logic to test vulnerabilities.
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 147
A security analyst is reviewing the following log after enabling key-based authentication.
Given the above information, which of the following steps should be performed NEXT to secure the system?
- A. Disable password authentication for SSH.
- B. Disable SSHv1.
- C. Disable anonymous SSH logins.
- D. Disable remote root SSH logins.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 148
During an Incident, it Is determined that a customer database containing email addresses, first names, and last names was exfiltrated. Which ot the following should the security analyst do NEXT?
- A. Consult with the legal department for regulatory impact.
- B. Email the customers to inform them of the breach.
- C. Follow the incident communications process.
- D. Encrypt the database with available tools.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An incident communications process is a set of procedures that defines how to communicate with internal and external stakeholders during and after an incident, such as customers, employees, management, regulators and media. An incident communications process can help to provide accurate, timely and consistent information about the incident, its impact and the actions taken to resolve it. An incident communications process can also help to maintain trust and reputation, comply with legal obligations and prevent misinformation or confusion3 .
NEW QUESTION # 149
A security analyst is auditing firewall rules with the goal of scanning some known ports to check the firewall's behavior and responses. The analyst executes the following commands.
Which of the following BEST describes the firewall rule?
- A. LOG -log-tcp-sequence
- B. DROP
- C. REJECT with --tcp-reset
- D. DNAt -to-destination 1.1.1.1:3000
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 150
A security analyst was transferred to an organization's threat-hunting team to track specific activity throughout the enterprise environment The analyst must observe and assess the number ot times this activity occurs and aggregate the results. Which of the following is the BEST threat-hunting method for the analyst to use?
- A. Grouping
- B. Searching
- C. Stack counting
- D. Clustering
Answer: C
Explanation:
Stack counting is the best threat-hunting method for the analyst to use to observe and assess the number of times a specific activity occurs and aggregate the results. Stack counting is a technique that involves collecting data from multiple sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and grouping them by a common attribute, such as an IP address, a user name, or a process name. Stack counting can help identify patterns, trends, outliers, or anomalies in the data that may indicate malicious activity or compromise.
NEW QUESTION # 151
A security analyst discovers suspicious host activity while performing monitoring activities. The analyst pulls a packet capture for the activity and sees the following:
Which of the following describes what has occurred?
- A. The host attempted to download an application from utoftor.com.
- B. The host attempted to make a secure connection to utoftor.com.
- C. The host downloaded an application from utoftor.com.
- D. The host rejected the connection from utoftor.com.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 152
A cybersecurity analyst is currently using Nessus to scan several FTP servers. Upon receiving the results of the scan, the analyst needs to further test to verify that the vulnerability found exists.
The analyst uses the following snippet of code:
Which of the following vulnerabilities is the analyst checking for?
- A. Buffer overflow
- B. SQL injection
- C. Default passwords
- D. Format string attack
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 153
According to a static analysis report for a web application, a dynamic code evaluation script injection vulnerability was found. Which of the following actions is the BEST option to fix the vulnerability in the source code?
- A. Create a custom rule on the web application firewall.
- B. Use parameterized queries.
- C. Validate user input before execution and interpretation.
- D. Delete the vulnerable section of the code immediately.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Validating user input before execution and interpretation can help to prevent dynamic code evaluation script injection vulnerabilities by checking and filtering any malicious input from the user that may contain code or commands. Dynamic code evaluation script injection is a type of vulnerability that occurs when an application accepts user input and executes or interprets it as part of its own code without proper validation or sanitization. This can allow an attacker to inject arbitrary code or commands into the application and execute them with the same privileges as the application . Validating user input before execution and interpretation can help to ensure that the input conforms to the expected format, length and type, and does not contain any malicious characters or syntax that may alter the logic or behavior of the application .
NEW QUESTION # 154
An application has been updated to fix a vulnerability. Which of the following would ensure that previously patched vulnerabilities have not been reintroduced?
- A. Stress testing
- B. Code review
- C. Regression testing
- D. Peer review
Answer: C
Explanation:
Regression testing is a type of software testing that ensures that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features123 Regression testing is useful for checking if previously patched vulnerabilities have not been reintroduced by the new update.
Stress testing is a type of software testing that evaluates the performance and reliability of a system under extreme conditions, such as high load, limited resources, or concurrent users. Stress testing is not directly related to checking for vulnerabilities.
Code review is a process of examining the source code of a software program to find and fix errors, improve quality, and ensure compliance with standards and best practices. Code review can help prevent vulnerabilities from being introduced in the first place, but it does not verify that existing features are working as expected after a code change.
Peer review is a process of evaluating the work of another person or group of people, such as a research paper, a report, or a design. Peer review can provide feedback and suggestions for improvement, but it does not test the functionality or security of a software product.
NEW QUESTION # 155
A computer has been infected with a virus and is sending out a beacon to command and control server through an unknown service. Which of the following should a security technician implement to drop the traffic going to the command and control server and still be able to identify the infected host through firewall logs?
- A. Patches
- B. Sinkhole
- C. Block ports and services
- D. Endpoint security
Answer: B
Explanation:
https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Configuration-Articles/How-to-Configure-DNS-Sinkhole/ta- p/58891
NEW QUESTION # 156
A security analyst is reviewing the following log from an email security service.
Which of the following BEST describes the reason why the email was blocked?
- A. The To address is invalid.
- B. The email originated from the www.spamfilter.org URL.
- C. The From address is invalid.
- D. The IP address and the remote server name are the same.
- E. The IP address was blacklisted.
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 157
A security analyst is reviewing a report from the networking department that describes an increase in network utilization, which is causing network performance issues on some systems.
A top talkers report over a five-minute sample is included.
Given the above output of the sample, which of the following should the security analyst accomplish FIRST to help track down the performance issues?
- A. Perform reverse lookups on each of the IP addresses listed to help determine if the traffic is necessary.
- B. Quarantine the top talker on the network and begin to investigate any potential threats caused by the excessive traffic.
- C. Recommend that networking block the unneeded protocols such as Quicktime to clear up some of the congestion.
- D. Put ACLs in place to restrict traffic destined for random or non-default application ports.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 158
Which of the following lines from this output most likely indicates that attackers could quickly use brute force and determine the negotiated secret session key?
- A. TLS_DHE_RSA_WITH_AES_128_CBC_SHA 128 DH (1024 bits)
- B. TLS_DHE_RSA_WITH_AES_256_GCM_SHA256 DH (2048 bits)
- C. TLS_RSA_WITH_DES_CBC_SHA 56
- D. TLS_RSA_WITH_AES_256_CBC_SHA 256
Answer: A
Explanation:
The line from this output that most likely indicates that attackers could quickly use brute force and determine the negotiated secret session key is TLS_DHE_RSA_WITH_AES_128_CBC_SHA 128 DH (1024 bits). This line indicates that the cipher suite uses Diffie-Hellman ephemeral (DHE) key exchange with RSA authentication, AES 128-bit encryption with cipher block chaining (CBC) mode, and SHA-1 hashing. The DHE key exchange uses a 1024-bit Diffie-Hellman group, which is considered too weak for modern security standards and can be broken by attackers using sufficient computing power. The other lines indicate stronger cipher suites that use longer key lengths or more secure algorithms. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 9; https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/secauthn/cipher-suites-in-schannel
NEW QUESTION # 159
An analyst determines a security incident has occurred Which of the following is the most appropnate NEXT step in an incident response plan?
- A. Consult the data classification process
- B. Consult the communications plan
- C. Consult the disaster recovery plan
- D. Consult the malware analysis process
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 160
A security analyst is running a tool against an executable of an unknown source. The Input supplied by the tool to the executable program and the output from the executable are shown below:
Which of the following should the analyst report after viewing this Information?
- A. The executable attempted to execute a malicious command
- B. A dynamic library that is needed by the executable a missing
- C. Input can be crafted to trigger an Infection attack in the executable
- D. The toot caused a buffer overflow in the executable's memory
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 161
A security analyst is monitoring authentication exchanges over the company's wireless network.
A sample of the Wireshark output is shown below:
Which of the following would improve the security posture of the wireless network?
- A. Using SSL 2.0 instead of TLSv1.1
- B. using aspx instead of .jsp
- C. Using UDP instead of TCP
- D. Using PEAP instead of LEAP
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 162
The developers recently deployed new code to three web servers. A daffy automated external device scan report shows server vulnerabilities that are failure items according to PCI DSS.
If the venerability is not valid, the analyst must take the proper steps to get the scan clean.
If the venerability is valid, the analyst must remediate the finding.
After reviewing the information provided in the network diagram, select the STEP 2 tab to complete the simulation by selecting the correct Validation Result and Remediation Action for each server listed using the drop-down options.
INTRUCTIONS:
The simulation includes 2 steps.
Step1:Review the information provided in the network diagram and then move to the STEP 2 tab.
STEP 2: Given the Scenario, determine which remediation action is required to address the vulnerability.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 163
Review the following results:
Which of the following has occurred?
- A. 123.120.110.212 is infected with a Trojan.
- B. 172.29.0.109 is infected with a Trojan.
- C. This is normal network traffic.
- D. 172.29.0.109 is infected with a worm.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 164
A security analyst is reviewing packet captures to determine the extent of success during an attacker's reconnaissance phase following a recent incident.
The following is a hex and ASCII dump of one such packet:
Which of the following BEST describes this packet?
- A. DNS BIND version request
- B. DNS zone transfer request
- C. DNS over TCP server status query
- D. DNS over UDP standard query
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 165
A user receives a potentially malicious email that contains spelling errors and a PDF document. A security analyst reviews the email and decides to download the attachment to a Linux sandbox for review.
Which of the following commands would MOST likely indicate if the email is malicious?
- A. cat < ~/Desktop/file.pdf | grep -i .exe
- B. strings ~/Desktop/file.pdf | grep "<script"
- C. file ~/Desktop/file.pdf
- D. sha256sum ~/Desktop/file.pdf
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 166
A security analyst needs to provide the development learn with secure connectivity from the corporate network to a three-tier cloud environment. The developers require access to servers in all three tiers in order to perform various configuration tasks. Which of the following technologies should the analyst implement to provide secure transport?
- A. VPN
- B. VPC
- C. Federation
- D. CASB
Answer: A
Explanation:
What is the difference between VPN and VPC?
Just as a virtual private network (VPN) provides secure data transfer over the public Internet, a VPC provides secure data transfer between a private enterprise and a public cloud provider.
VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a technology that provides secure connectivity from the corporate network to a cloud environment. VPN creates an encrypted tunnel between the two networks, allowing developers to access servers in all three tiers of the cloud environment without exposing their traffic to interception or tampering. VPN can also provide authentication and authorization mechanisms to verify the identity and permissions of the developers.
NEW QUESTION # 167
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