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Cryptography (10%):
- Understanding the Basics of the Concepts of Cryptography – This topic includes hashing, non-repudiation, salting, encryption algorithms, cryptographic attacks, countermeasures, & cryptanalysis, and asymmetric/symmetric encryption Elliptic Curve Cryptography;
- Understanding & Supporting Secure Protocols – It includes the common use cases, services & protocols, and limitations & vulnerabilities;
- Understanding the Prerequisites & Reasons for Cryptography – This part will test your knowledge about confidentiality, regulatory, authenticity & integrity, and data sensitivity;
- Understanding PKI Systems – The applicants should demonstrate their knowledge of Web of Trust and fundamental concepts of key management.
NEW QUESTION 203
The Trusted Computer Security Evaluation Criteria book (TCSEC) is also referred to as:
- A. The orange book
- B. ISO 792
- C. RFC 1700
- D. BS 1412
- E. The blue book
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Trusted Computer Security Evaluation Criteria book (TCSEC) is also referred to as the Orange book.
NEW QUESTION 204
Which of the following specifically addresses cyber attacks against an organization's IT systems?
- A. Business continuity plan
- B. Continuity of support plan
- C. Incident response plan
- D. Continuity of operations plan
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
The incident response plan focuses on information security responses to incidents affecting systems and/or networks. It establishes procedures to address cyber attacks against an organization's IT systems. These procedures are designed to enable security personnel to identify, mitigate, and recover from malicious computer incidents, such as unauthorized access to a system or data, denial of service, or unauthorized changes to system hardware or software. The continuity of support plan is the same as an IT contingency plan.
It addresses IT system disruptions and establishes procedures for recovering a major application or general support system. It is not business process focused. The business continuity plan addresses business processes and provides procedures for sustaining essential business operations while recovering from a significant disruption. The continuity of operations plan addresses the subset of an organization's missions that are deemed most critical and procedures to sustain these functions at an alternate site for up to 30 days.
Source: SWANSON, Marianne, & al., National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication 800-34, Contingency Planning Guide for Information Technology Systems, December 2001 (page
8).
NEW QUESTION 205
What is the main purpose of Corporate Security Policy?
- A. To communicate management's intentions in regards to information security
- B. To transfer the responsibility for the information security to all users of the organization
- C. To provide a common framework for all development activities
- D. To provide detailed steps for performing specific actions
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Security Operation Adimnistration
Explanation/Reference:
A Corporate Security Policy is a high level document that indicates what are management`s intentions in regard to Information Security within the organization. It is high level in purpose, it does not give you details about specific products that would be use, specific steps, etc..
The organization's requirements for access control should be defined and documented in its security policies.
Access rules and rights for each user or group of users should be clearly stated in an access policy statement.
The access control policy should minimally consider:
Statements of general security principles and their applicability to the organization Security requirements of individual enterprise applications, systems, and services Consistency between the access control and information classification policies of different systems and networks Contractual obligations or regulatory compliance regarding protection of assets Standards defining user access profiles for organizational roles Details regarding the management of the access control system As a Certified Information System Security Professional (CISSP) you would be involved directly in the drafting and coordination of security policies, standards and supporting guidelines, procedures, and baselines.
Guidance provided by the CISSP for technical security issues, and emerging threats are considered for the adoption of new policies. Activities such as interpretation of government regulations and industry trends and analysis of vendor solutions to include in the security architecture that advances the security of the organization are performed by the CISSP as well.
The following are incorrect answers:
To transfer the responsibility for the information security to all users of the organization is bogus. You CANNOT transfer responsibility, you can only tranfer authority. Responsibility will also sit with upper management. The keyworks ALL and USERS is also an indication that it is the wrong choice.
To provide detailed steps for performing specific actions is also a bogus detractor. A step by step document is referred to as a procedure. It details how to accomplish a specific task.
To provide a common framework for all development activities is also an invalid choice. Security Policies are not restricted only to development activities.
Reference Used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 1551-1565). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 9109-9112). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION 206
What would BEST define a covert channel?
- A. An open system port that should be closed.
- B. Explanation:
The - C. A trojan horse.
- D. An undocumented backdoor that has been left by a programmer in an operating system
- E. A communication channel that allows transfer of information in a manner that violates the system's security policy.
Answer: E
Explanation:
communication channel that allows transfer of information in a manner that violates the system's security policy.
A covert channel is a way for an entity to receive information in an unauthorized manner. It is an information flow that is not controlled by a security mechanism. This type of information path was not developed for communication; thus, the system does not properly protect this path, because the developers never envisioned information being passed in this way.
Receiving information in this manner clearly violates the system's security policy. The channel to transfer this unauthorized data is the result of one of the following conditions: Oversight in the development of the product
Improper implementation of access controls
Existence of a shared resource between the two entities
Installation of a Trojan horse
The following answers are incorrect:
An undocumented backdoor that has been left by a programmer in an operating system is incorrect because it is not a means by which unauthorized transfer of information takes place. Such backdoor is usually referred to as a Maintenance Hook.
An open system port that should be closed is incorrect as it does not define a covert channel.
A trojan horse is incorrect because it is a program that looks like a useful program but when you install it it would include a bonus such as a Worm, Backdoor, or some other malware without the installer knowing about it.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Shon Harris AIO v3 , Chapter-5 : Security Models & Architecture AIOv4 Security Architecture and Design (pages 343 - 344) AIOv5 Security Architecture and Design (pages 345 - 346)
NEW QUESTION 207
A common way to create fault tolerance with leased lines is to group several T1s together with an inverse multiplexer placed:
- A. in the middle of the connection.
- B. at both ends of the connection.
- C. at one end of the connection.
- D. somewhere between both end points.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A common way to create fault tolerance with leased lines is to group several T1s together with an inverse multiplexer placed at both ends of the connection.
In fact it would be a Multiplexer at one end and DeMultiplexer at other end or vice versa. Inverse Multiplexer at both end.
In electronics, a multiplexer (or mux) is a device that selects one of several analog or digital input signals and forwards the selected input into a single line. A multiplexer of 2n inputs has n select lines, which are used to select which input line to send to the output. Multiplexers are mainly used to increase the amount of data that can be sent over the network within a certain amount of time and bandwidth. A multiplexer is also called a data selector.
An electronic multiplexer makes it possible for several signals to share one device or resource, for example one A/D converter or one communication line, instead of having one device per input signal.
On the other hand, a demultiplexer (or demux) is a device taking a single input signal and selecting one of many data-output-lines, which is connected to the single input. A multiplexer is often used with a complementary demultiplexer on the receiving end. An electronic multiplexer can be considered as a multiple-input, single-output switch, and a demultiplexer as a single-input, multiple-output switch
References: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 72. and https://secure.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/wiki/Multiplexer
NEW QUESTION 208
Which of the following is the LEAST user accepted biometric device?
- A. Iris scan
- B. Fingerprint
- C. Retina scan
- D. Voice verification
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Access Control
Explanation/Reference:
The biometric device that is least user accepted is the retina scan, where a system scans the blood-vessel pattern on the backside of the eyeball. When using this device, an individual has to place their eye up to a device, and may require a puff of air to be blown into the eye. The iris scan only needs for an individual to glance at a camera that could be placed above a door.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter 4:
Access Control (page 131).
NEW QUESTION 209
Which of the following protocols is designed to send individual messages securely?
- A. Secure Electronic Transaction (SET).
- B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).
- C. Kerberos
- D. Secure HTTP (S-HTTP).
Answer: D
Explanation:
An early standard for encrypting HTTP documents, Secure HTTP (S-HTTP) is designed to send individual messages securely. SSL is designed to establish a secure connection between two computers. SET was originated by VISA and MasterCard as an Internet credit card protocol using digital signatures. Kerberos is an authentication system.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 89.
NEW QUESTION 210
Which of the following is not appropriate in addressing object reuse?
- A. Clearing memory blocks before they are allocated to a program or data.
- B. Degaussing magnetic tapes when they're no longer needed.
- C. Deleting files on disk before reusing the space.
- D. Clearing buffered pages, documents, or screens from the local memory of a terminal or printer.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Security Operation Adimnistration
Explanation/Reference:
Object reuse requirements, applying to systems rated TCSEC C2 and above, are used to protect files, memory, and other objects in a trusted system from being accidentally accessed by users who are not authorized to access them. Deleting files on disk merely erases file headers in a directory structure. It does not clear data from the disk surface, thus making files still recoverable. All other options involve clearing used space, preventing any unauthorized access.
Source: RUSSEL, Deborah & GANGEMI, G.T. Sr., Computer Security Basics, O'Reilly, July 1992 (page 119).
NEW QUESTION 211
Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding the implementaton of the 3DES modes?
- A. DES-EDE2 uses two keys
- B. DES-EEE3 uses three keys
- C. DES-EEE2 uses two keys
- D. DES-EEE1 uses one key
Answer: D
Explanation:
There is no DES mode call DES-EEE1. It does not exist.
The following are the correct modes for triple-DES (3DES):
DES-EEE3 uses three keys for encryption and the data is encrypted, encrypted, encrypted;
DES-EDE3 uses three keys and encrypts, decrypts and encrypts data.
DES-EEE2 and DES-EDE2 are the same as the previous modes, but the first and third
operations use the same key.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Shon Harris, CISSP All In One (AIO) book, 6th edition , page 808
and
Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, 2nd Edition (2010) , page 344-345
NEW QUESTION 212
When it comes to magnetic media sanitization, what difference can be made between clearing and purging information?
- A. Clearing completely erases the media whereas purging only removes file headers, allowing the recovery of files.
- B. Clearing renders information unrecoverable against a laboratory attack and purging renders information unrecoverable to a keyboard attack.
- C. They both involve rewriting the media.
- D. Clearing renders information unrecoverable by a keyboard attack and purging renders information unrecoverable against laboratory attack.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The removal of information from a storage medium is called sanitization.
Different kinds of sanitization provide different levels of protection. A distinction can be
made between clearing information (rendering it unrecoverable by a keyboard attack) and
purging (rendering it unrecoverable against laboratory attack).
There are three general methods of purging media: overwriting, degaussing, and
destruction.
There should be continuous assurance that sensitive information is protected and not
allowed to be placed in a circumstance wherein a possible compromise can occur. There
are two primary levels of threat that the protector of information must guard against:
keyboard attack (information scavenging through system software capabilities) and
laboratory attack (information scavenging through laboratory means). Procedures should
be implemented to address these threats before the Automated Information System (AIS)
is procured, and the procedures should be continued throughout the life cycle of the AIS.
Reference(s) use for this question:
SWANSON, Marianne & GUTTMAN, Barbara, National Institute of Standards and
Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication 800-14, Generally Accepted Principles and
Practices for Securing Information Technology Systems, September 1996 (page 26).
and
A guide to understanding Data Remanence in Automated Information Systems
NEW QUESTION 213
Which of the following is a large hardware/software backup system that uses the RAID technology?
- A. Crimson Array
- B. Scale Array.
- C. Table Array.
- D. Tape Array.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Tape Array is a large hardware/software backup system based on the
RAID technology.
There is a misconception that RAID can only be used with Disks.
All large storage vendor from HP, to EMC, to Compaq have Tape Array based on RAID
technology they offer.
This is a VERY common type of storage at an affordable price as well.
So RAID is not exclusively for DISKS. Often time this is referred to as Tape Librairies or
simply RAIT.
RAIT (redundant array of independent tapes) is similar to RAID, but uses tape drives
instead of disk drives. Tape storage is the lowest-cost option for very large amounts of
data, but is very slow compared to disk storage. As in RAID 1 striping, in RAIT, data are
striped in parallel to multiple tape drives, with or without a redundant parity drive. This
provides the high capacity at low cost typical of tape storage, with higher-than-usual tape
data transfer rates and optional data integrity.
References:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 70. and Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 1271). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION 214
Physically securing backup tapes from unauthorized access is obviously a security concern and is considered a function of the:
- A. Operations Security Domain Analysis.
- B. Operations Security Domain.
- C. Telecommunications and Network Security Domain.
- D. Business Continuity Planning and Disater Recovery Planning.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
Physically securing the tapes from unauthorized access is obviously a security concern and is considered a function of the Operations Security Domain.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 71.
NEW QUESTION 215
In which phase of Internet Key Exchange (IKE) protocol is peer authentication performed?
- A. Phase 1
- B. Pre Initialization Phase
- C. No peer authentication is performed
- D. Phase 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Internet Key Exchange (IKE) protocol is a key management protocol
standard that is used in conjunction with the IPSec standard. IKE enhances IPSec by
providing additional features, flexibility, and ease of configuration for the IPSec standard.
IPSec can however, be configured without IKE by manually configuring the gateways
communicating with each other for example.
A security association (SA) is a relationship between two or more entities that describes
how the entities will use security services to communicate securely.
In phase 1 of this process, IKE creates an authenticated, secure channel between the two
IKE peers, called the IKE security association. The Diffie-Hellman key agreement is always
performed in this phase.
In phase 2 IKE negotiates the IPSec security associations and generates the required key
material for IPSec. The sender offers one or more transform sets that are used to specify
an allowed combination of transforms with their respective settings.
Benefits provided by IKE include:
Eliminates the need to manually specify all the IPSec security parameters in the crypto
maps at both peers.
Allows you to specify a lifetime for the IPSec security association.
Allows encryption keys to change during IPSec sessions.
Allows IPSec to provide anti-replay services.
Permits Certification Authority (CA) support for a manageable, scalable IPSec
implementation.
Allows dynamic authentication of peers.
References:
RFC 2409: The Internet Key Exchange (IKE);
DORASWAMY, Naganand & HARKINS, Dan, Ipsec: The New Security Standard for the
Internet, Intranets, and Virtual Private Networks, 1999, Prentice Hall PTR;
SMITH, Richard E., Internet Cryptography, 1997, Addison-Wesley Pub Co.
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=25474
NEW QUESTION 216
Which of the following statements pertaining to stream ciphers is correct?
- A. A stream cipher is a type of asymmetric encryption algorithm.
- B. A stream cipher generates what is called a keystream.
- C. A stream cipher is slower than a block cipher.
- D. A stream cipher is not appropriate for hardware-based encryption.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Cryptography
Explanation/Reference:
A stream cipher is a type of symmetric encryption algorithm that operates on continuous streams of plain text and is appropriate for hardware-based encryption.
Stream ciphers can be designed to be exceptionally fast, much faster than any block cipher. A stream cipher generates what is called a keystream (a sequence of bits used as a key).
Stream ciphers can be viewed as approximating the action of a proven unbreakable cipher, the one-time pad (OTP), sometimes known as the Vernam cipher. A one-time pad uses a keystream of completely random digits. The keystream is combined with the plaintext digits one at a time to form the ciphertext. This system was proved to be secure by Claude Shannon in 1949. However, the keystream must be (at least) the same length as the plaintext, and generated completely at random. This makes the system very cumbersome to implement in practice, and as a result the one-time pad has not been widely used, except for the most critical applications.
A stream cipher makes use of a much smaller and more convenient key - 128 bits, for example. Based on this key, it generates a pseudorandom keystream which can be combined with the plaintext digits in a similar fashion to the one-time pad. However, this comes at a cost: because the keystream is now pseudorandom, and not truly random, the proof of security associated with the one-time pad no longer holds: it is quite possible for a stream cipher to be completely insecure if it is not implemented properly as we have seen with the Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol.
Encryption is accomplished by combining the keystream with the plaintext, usually with the bitwise XOR operation.
Source: DUPUIS, Clement, CISSP Open Study Guide on domain 5, cryptography, April 1999.
More details can be obtained on Stream Ciphers in RSA Security's FAQ on Stream Ciphers.
NEW QUESTION 217
Which of the following protocols that provide integrity and authentication for IPSec, can also provide non- repudiation in IPSec?
- A. Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
- B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
- C. Authentication Header (AH)
- D. Secure Shell (SSH-2)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Cryptography
Explanation/Reference:
As per the RFC in reference, the Authentication Header (AH) protocol is a mechanism for providing strong integrity and authentication for IP datagrams. It might also provide non-repudiation, depending on which cryptographic algorithm is used and how keying is performed. For example, use of an asymmetric digital signature algorithm, such as RSA, could provide non-repudiation.
from a cryptography point of view, so we will cover it from a VPN point of view here. IPSec is a suite of protocols that was developed to specifically protect IP traffic. IPv4 does not have any integrated security, so IPSec was developed to bolt onto IP and secure the data the protocol transmits. Where PPTP and L2TP work at the data link layer, IPSec works at the network layer of the OSI model. The main protocols that make up the IPSec suite and their basic functionality are as follows: A. Authentication Header (AH) provides data integrity, data origin authentication, and protection from replay attacks. B. Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) provides confidentiality, data-origin authentication, and data integrity. C. Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP) provides a framework for security association creation and key exchange. D.
Internet Key Exchange (IKE) provides authenticated keying material for use with ISAKMP.
The following are incorrect answers:
ESP is a mechanism for providing integrity and confidentiality to IP datagrams. It may also provide authentication, depending on which lgorithm and algorithm mode are used. Non-repudiation and protection from traffic analysis are not provided by ESP (RFC 1827).
SSL is a secure protocol used for transmitting private information over the Internet. It works by using a public key to encrypt data that is transferred of the SSL connection. OIG 2007, page 976 SSH-2 is a secure, efficient, and portable version of SSH (Secure Shell) which is a secure replacement for telnet.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Shon Harris, CISSP All In One, 6th Edition , Page 705
and
RFC 1826, http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc1826, paragraph 1.
NEW QUESTION 218
Cryptography does not concern itself with which of the following choices?
- A. Availability
- B. Confidentiality
- C. Validation
- D. Integrity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Cryptography
Explanation/Reference:
The cryptography domain addresses the principles, means, and methods of disguising information to ensure its integrity, confidentiality, and authenticity. Unlike the other domains, cryptography does not completely support the standard of availability.
Availability
Cryptography supports all three of the core principles of information security. Many access control systems use cryptography to limit access to systems through the use of passwords. Many token-based authentication systems use cryptographic-based hash algorithms to compute one-time passwords. Denying unauthorized access prevents an attacker from entering and damaging the system or network, thereby denying access to authorized users if they damage or currupt the data.
Confidentiality
Cryptography provides confidentiality through altering or hiding a message so that ideally it cannot be understood by anyone except the intended recipient.
Integrity
Cryptographic tools provide integrity checks that allow a recipient to verify that a message has not been altered. Cryptographic tools cannot prevent a message from being altered, but they are effective to detect either intentional or accidental modification of the message.
Additional Features of Cryptographic Systems In addition to the three core principles of information security listed above, cryptographic tools provide several more benefits.
Nonrepudiation
In a trusted environment, the authentication of the origin can be provided through the simple control of the keys. The receiver has a level of assurance that the message was encrypted by the sender, and the sender has trust that the message was not altered once it was received. However, in a more stringent, less trustworthy environment, it may be necessary to provide assurance via a third party of who sent a message and that the message was indeed delivered to the right recipient. This is accomplished through the use of digital signatures and public key encryption. The use of these tools provides a level of nonrepudiation of origin that can be verified by a third party.
Once a message has been received, what is to prevent the recipient from changing the message and contesting that the altered message was the one sent by the sender? The nonrepudiation of delivery prevents a recipient from changing the message and falsely claiming that the message is in its original state. This is also accomplished through the use of public key cryptography and digital signatures and is verifiable by a trusted third party.
Authentication
Authentication is the ability to determine if someone or something is what it declares to be. This is primarily done through the control of the keys, because only those with access to the key are able to encrypt a message.
This is not as strong as the nonrepudiation of origin, which will be reviewed shortly Cryptographic functions use several methods to ensure that a message has not been changed or altered. These include hash functions, digital signatures, and message authentication codes (MACs). The main concept is that the recipient is able to detect any change that has been made to a message, whether accidentally or intentionally.
Access Control
Through the use of cryptographic tools, many forms of access control are supported-from log-ins via passwords and passphrases to the prevention of access to confidential files or messages. In all cases, access would only be possible for those individuals that had access to the correct cryptographic keys.
NOTE FROM CLEMENT:
As you have seen this question was very recently updated with the latest content of the Official ISC2 Guide (OIG) to the CISSP CBK, Version 3.
Myself, I agree with most of you that cryptography does not help on the availability side and it is even the contrary sometimes if you loose the key for example. In such case you would loose access to the data and negatively impact availability. But the ISC2 is not about what I think or what you think, they have their own view of the world where they claim and state clearly that cryptography does address availability even thou it does not fully address it.
They look at crypto as the ever emcompassing tool it has become today. Where it can be use for authentication purpose for example where it would help to avoid corruption of the data through illegal access by an unauthorized user.
The question is worded this way in purpose, it is VERY specific to the CISSP exam context where ISC2 preaches that cryptography address availability even thou they state it does not fully address it. This is something new in the last edition of their book and something you must be aware of.
Best regards
Clement
The following terms are from the Software Development Security domain:
Validation: The assurance that a product, service, or system meets the needs of the customer and other identified stakeholders. It often involves acceptance and suitability with external customers. Contrast with verification below." Verification: The evaluation of whether or not a product, service, or system complies with a regulation, requirement, specification, or imposed condition. It is often an internal process. Contrast with validation." The terms above are from the Software Development Security Domain.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition : Cryptography (Kindle Locations 227-244). . Kindle Edition.
and
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition : Cryptography (Kindle Locations 206-227). . Kindle Edition.
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Verification_and_validation
NEW QUESTION 219
- A. Ease of Use
- B. Integrity of data
- C. Availability
- D. Confidentiality
Answer: B,C,D
NEW QUESTION 220
What can be defined as an abstract machine that mediates all access to objects by subjects to ensure that subjects have the necessary access rights and to protect objects from unauthorized access?
- A. The Trusted Computing Base
- B. The Security Domain
- C. The Reference Monitor
- D. The Security Kernel
Answer: C
Explanation:
The reference monitor refers to abstract machine that mediates all access to objects by subjects.
This question is asking for the concept that governs access by subjects to objects, thus the reference monitor is the best answer. While the security kernel is similar in nature, it is what actually enforces the concepts outlined in the reference monitor.
In operating systems architecture a reference monitor concept defines a set of design requirements on a reference validation mechanism, which enforces an access control policy over subjects' (e.g., processes and users) ability to perform operations (e.g., read and write) on objects (e.g., files and sockets) on a system. The properties of a reference monitor are:
The reference validation mechanism must always be invoked (complete mediation). Without this property, it is possible for an attacker to bypass the mechanism and violate the security policy. The reference validation mechanism must be tamperproof (tamperproof). Without this property, an attacker can undermine the mechanism itself so that the security policy is not correctly enforced. The reference validation mechanism must be small enough to be subject to analysis and tests, the completeness of which can be assured (verifiable). Without this property, the mechanism might be flawed in such a way that the policy is not enforced.
For example, Windows 3.x and 9x operating systems were not built with a reference monitor, whereas the Windows NT line, which also includes Windows 2000 and Windows XP, was designed to contain a reference monitor, although it is not clear that its properties (tamperproof, etc.) have ever been independently verified, or what level of computer security it was intended to provide.
The claim is that a reference validation mechanism that satisfies the reference monitor concept will correctly enforce a system's access control policy, as it must be invoked to mediate all security-sensitive operations, must not be tampered, and has undergone complete analysis and testing to verify correctness. The abstract model of a reference monitor has been widely applied to any type of system that needs to enforce access control, and is considered to express the necessary and sufficient properties for any system making this security claim.
According to Ross Anderson, the reference monitor concept was introduced by James Anderson in an influential 1972 paper.
Systems evaluated at B3 and above by the Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria
(TCSEC) must enforce the reference monitor concept.
The reference monitor, as defined in AIO V5 (Harris) is: "an access control concept that
refers to an abstract machine that mediates all access to objects by subjects."
The security kernel, as defined in AIO V5 (Harris) is: "the hardware, firmware, and software
elements of a trusted computing based (TCB) that implement the reference monitor
concept. The kernel must mediate all access between subjects and objects, be protected
from modification, and be verifiable as correct."
The trusted computing based (TCB), as defined in AIO V5 (Harris) is: "all of the protection
mechanisms within a computer system (software, hardware, and firmware) that are
responsible for enforcing a security policy."
The security domain, "builds upon the definition of domain (a set of resources available to a
subject) by adding the fact that resources withing this logical structure (domain) are
working under the same security policy and managed by the same group."
The following answers are incorrect:
"The security kernel" is incorrect. One of the places a reference monitor could be
implemented is in the security kernel but this is not the best answer.
"The trusted computing base" is incorrect. The reference monitor is an important concept in
the TCB but this is not the best answer.
"The security domain is incorrect." The reference monitor is an important concept in the
security domain but this is not the best answer.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Official ISC2 Guide to the CBK, page 324
AIO Version 3, pp. 272 - 274
AIOv4 Security Architecture and Design (pages 327 - 328)
AIOv5 Security Architecture and Design (pages 330 - 331)
Wikipedia article at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reference_monitor
NEW QUESTION 221
Which of the following offers confidentiality to an e-mail message?
- A. The sender encrypting it with its private key.
- B. The sender encrypting it with the receiver's private key.
- C. The sender encrypting it with the receiver's public key.
- D. The sender encrypting it with its public key.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
An e-mail message's confidentiality is protected when encrypted with the receiver's public key, because he is the only one able to decrypt the message. The sender is not supposed to have the receiver's private key. By encrypting a message with its private key, anybody possessing the corresponding public key would be able to read the message. By encrypting the message with its public key, not even the receiver would be able to read the message.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter
8: Cryptography (page 517).
NEW QUESTION 222
Which integrity model defines a constrained data item, an integrity verification procedure and a transformation procedure?
- A. The Biba integrity model
- B. The Bell-LaPadula integrity model
- C. The Clark Wilson integrity model
- D. The Take-Grant model
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Access Control
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Clark Wilson integrity model addresses the three following integrity goals: 1) data is protected from modification by unauthorized users; 2) data is protected from unauthorized modification by authorized users; and 3) data is internally and externally consistent. It also defines a Constrained Data Item (CDI), an Integrity Verification Procedure (IVP), a Transformation Procedure (TP) and an Unconstrained Data item. The Bell- LaPadula and Take-Grant models are not integrity models.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 5: Security Architecture and Models (page 205).
NEW QUESTION 223
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