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NEW QUESTION # 30
Which action must top management take to provide evidence of its commitment to the establishment, operation and improvement of the ISMS?
- A. Communicating feedback from interested parties to the organization
- B. Implementing the actions from internal audits
- C. Producing a risk assessment report
- D. Ensuring information security objectives are established
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 5.1 (Leadership and Commitment) requires top management to demonstrate leadership by:
* "ensuring the information security policy and the information security objectives are established and are compatible with the strategic direction of the organization;"
* "ensuring the integration of the ISMS requirements into the organization's processes;"
* "ensuring that the resources needed for the ISMS are available;"
Among the options, the one explicitly mandated isensuring that information security objectives are established. Risk assessments (C) and implementing audit actions (D) are responsibilities of management but not the direct leadership evidence required in Clause 5.1. Communicating interested party feedback (A) is relevant but not specifically cited as leadership evidence. Thus, the verified answer isB.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which item is required to be defined when planning the organization's risk assessment process?
- A. The criteria for acceptable levels of risk
- B. The parts of the ISMS scope which are excluded from the risk assessment
- C. There are NO specific information requirements
- D. How the effectiveness of the method will be measured
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.2 (Information security risk assessment) requires organizations to "define and apply an information security risk assessment process that... establishes and maintains information security risk criteria, including criteria for accepting risk." This means that acceptable levels of risk (risk acceptance criteria) must be explicitly defined. These criteria ensure consistent decision-making when evaluating whether identified risks need further treatment or can be tolerated.
Option A is incorrect because exclusions relate to the ISMS scope (Clause 4.3), not risk assessment planning.
Option B is not a requirement; effectiveness of risk assessment methods is not required to be measured, though methods must be applied consistently. Option D is false-the standard clearly specifies required elements for risk assessment.
Thus, the correct answer isC: The criteria for acceptable levels of risk.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which item is required to be included in an information security policy?
- A. A plan for the continual improvement of the information security management system
- B. A Statement of Applicability which defines the necessary controls to be implemented
- C. A commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security
- D. A framework enabling concerns with the information security policy to be addressed
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 5.2 (Information security policy) requires that the policy:
* "includes information security objectives (or provides a framework for setting them)"
* "includes a commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security"
* "includes a commitment to continual improvement of the ISMS."
Among the listed options, the exact mandatory requirement is"a commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security". Option B partially reflects Clause 5.2 (commitment to continual improvement), but the wording given in the standard prioritizes the satisfaction of applicable requirements (e.g., legal, regulatory, contractual). Option C is not a policy requirement. Option D (Statement of Applicability) is a separate mandatory document (Clause 6.1.3) and not part of the policy itself.
Thus, the correct answer isA.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which action is a required response to an identified residual risk?
- A. It shall be reviewed by the risk owner to consider acceptance
- B. The organization shall change practices to avoid the risk occurring
- C. By default, it shall be controlled by information security awareness and training
- D. Top management shall delegate its treatment to risk owners
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.3 (e) specifies:
"The organization shall obtain risk owners' approval of the information security risk treatment plan and acceptance of the residual information security risks." This confirms that residual risks - those remaining after risk treatment - must be reviewed and formally accepted by the designated risk owner. Option A is incorrect; awareness training is not a default control for all residual risks. Option B misrepresents leadership responsibility; top management ensures processes exist, but risk ownersformally approve residual risk. Option D (avoiding risk) is a treatment option, not the mandated requirement for residual risks.
Thus, the required response isC: Review and acceptance by the risk owner.
NEW QUESTION # 34
What is required to be reported by the Information security event reporting control?
- A. Information disclosure
- B. Unauthorized access
- C. Asset disposal
- D. Observed or suspected events
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A, control 6.8 (Information security event reporting) specifies:
"Information security events should be reported through appropriate management channels as quickly as possible. The organization should require all employees and contractors to note and report any observed or suspected information security events." This wording confirms that the required reporting covers"observed or suspected events."Specific event types like information disclosure (A) or unauthorized access (B) are examples but not the broad requirement.
Asset disposal (C) is addressed separately under equipment lifecycle controls (Annex A.7.14).
Therefore, the verified correct answer isD: Observed or suspected events.
NEW QUESTION # 35
What is the definition of the term 'integrity' according to ISO/IEC 27000?
- A. The property of being accessible and usable
- B. The property of availability and confidentiality
- C. The property that information is NOT made available inappropriately
- D. The property of accuracy and completeness
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27000 standards:
According to ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.35:
"Integrity is the property of accuracy and completeness."
This is one of the three core principles of information security (CIA triad):
* Confidentiality: ensuring information is not made available to unauthorized persons (related to option B).
* Integrity: ensuring data is accurate, complete, and unaltered except by authorized means.
* Availability: ensuring information is accessible and usable when required (related to option A).
Option D incorrectly mixes availability and confidentiality. The precise ISO definition isaccuracy and completeness, which matches option C.
Thus, the correct verified answer isC.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which statement is a factor that will influence the implementation of the information security management system?
- A. The ISMS will encompass all controls specified within ISO/IEC 27001
- B. The ISMS will be scaled to the controls according to the needs of the organization
- C. The ISMS will be operated as an independent process within the organization
- D. The ISMS will be separate from the organization's overall management structure
Answer: B
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 makes clear that the ISMS is intended to be tailored to the organization. The standard states: " This document also includes requirements for the assessment and treatment of information security risks tailored to the needs of the organization. The requirements set out in this document are generic and are intended to be applicable to all organizations regardless of type, size or nature." This means implementation is scaled based on each organization's risk, context, and needs, not a fixed one-size-fits-all set of activities or controls. Clause 6.1.3 further reinforces that control selection is flexible and risk-driven: " Organizations can design controls as required or identify them from any source," and "Annex A contains a list of possible information security controls... The information security controls listed in Annex A are not exhaustive and additional information security controls can be included if needed." Together, these extracts verify that the ISMS implementation is influenced by and scaled to the organization's needs and selected controls, not separated from management processes (A, D) nor mandated to include "all controls" (B).
NEW QUESTION # 37
What is a requirement for a corrective action made in response to a nonconformity?
- A. They are proportionate to the likelihood of the nonconformity recurring
- B. They always eliminate the cause of the nonconformity
- C. They do NOT change the organization's information security policies
- D. They are appropriate to the effects of the nonconformity
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 10.1 (Nonconformity and corrective action) specifies:
"The organization shall react to the nonconformity and, as applicable: take action to control and correct it; deal with the consequences; evaluate the need for action to eliminate the cause(s)...
Corrective actions shall be appropriate to the effects of the nonconformities encountered." This confirms optionB. Option A is inaccurate-ISO requires actions appropriate toeffects, not probability alone. Option C is false-policies may need updating to correct nonconformities. Option D is incorrect, as not every cause can always be eliminated; residual issues may exist.
Thus, the verified requirement isB.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which action is an organization required to take to ensure that personnel are competent to perform their assigned tasks within the ISMS?
- A. Identify products which could be used in the organization to improve ISMS performance and effectiveness
- B. Ensure all personnel are trained to ISO/IEC 27001 Foundation level
- C. Ensure that the controls for compliance with legal and contractual requirements are implemented
- D. Hold up-to-date records on training, skills, experience and qualifications
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 7.2 (Competence) requires the organization to:
* "determine the necessary competence of person(s) doing work under its control that affects its information security performance;"
* "ensure that these persons are competent on the basis of appropriate education, training, or experience;"
* "retain appropriate documented information as evidence of competence." This makesholding up-to-date records on training, skills, experience, and qualifications(D) the correct answer. Option A is irrelevant to competence. Option B is incorrect since ISO does not require Foundation- level training - competence is context-based. Option C is related to compliance but does not ensure individual competence.
Thus, the verified correct answer isD.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which factor is required to be determined when understanding the organization and its context?
- A. Internal issues affecting the purpose of the ISMS
- B. The ISO/IEC 27001 clauses which apply to the management system
- C. The processes that will be required to operate the ISMS
- D. The information security objectives relevant to the ISMS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clause 4.1 specifies exactly what must be determined when establishing context: "The organization shall determine external and internal issues that are relevant to its purpose and that affect its ability to achieve the intended outcome(s) of its information security management system." This requirement is about understanding internal and external issues (e.g., culture, capabilities, regulatory environment) that influence the ISMS's effectiveness. Objectives (option B) are addressed later in Clause 6.2; processes (option C) are addressed in Clause 4.4 and operational planning; and "which clauses apply" (option D) is not a determination step-ISO/IEC 27001's requirements in Clauses 4-10 are not optional. Therefore, the direct, required factor per 4.1 is determining internal (and external) issues relevant to the organization's purpose and ISMS outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.
When planning the ISMS, the organization is specifically required to plan actions to address risks and opportunities and how to [ ? ] these actions.
- A. evaluate the effectiveness of
- B. improve the effectiveness of
- C. communicate
- D. apply competent resources to
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.1 (Planning) states:
"The organization shall plan:
d) actions to address these risks and opportunities; and
e) how to:
* integrate and implement the actions into its ISMS processes; and
* evaluate the effectiveness of these actions."
This confirms the missing words are"evaluate the effectiveness of". Communication (A), applying resources (B), and improving effectiveness (C) are important concepts elsewhere but not the direct requirement stated in this clause.
NEW QUESTION # 41
What activity is done first when preparing for an initial certification audit?
- A. Agree the scope of the ISMS with the Certification Body auditor
- B. Provide evidence that nonconformities from an internal audit have been actioned
- C. Provide records to the Certification Body auditor for the Stage 2 audit
- D. Provide documents to the Certification Body auditor for the Stage 1 audit
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27001:2022 standards and certification guidance:
Before a certification audit can begin, thescope of the ISMSmust be clearly defined and agreed with the Certification Body. ISO/IEC 27001 Clause 4.3 requires: "The scope shall be available as documented information." Certification Bodies require this scope statement to plan audit duration, resources, and coverage. Only after the scope is agreed does the Stage 1 audit begin, which reviews documented information and readiness. Stage
2 focuses on implementation and effectiveness. Evidence of corrective actions (C) is checked at Stage 2 if issues were identified earlier. Records provision (D) occurs during Stage 2, not first.
Thus, the first step in preparing for certification isA: Agreeing the scope of the ISMS with the Certification Body auditor.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which International Standard can be used to implement an integrated management system with ISO/IEC
27001?
- A. ISO/IEC 27013
- B. None of the above
- C. ISO 9001
- D. ISO/IEC 27003
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27013 provides specific guidance on theintegration of ISO/IEC 27001 (Information Security Management) and ISO/IEC 20000-1 (IT Service Management). It offers practical advice for organizations seeking a unified management system approach. While ISO/IEC 27003 (A) provides guidance on ISMS implementation, it does not address integration. ISO 9001 (C) is the Quality Management Standard and can be integrated, but the specific standard designed forintegrating 27001 with ITSMis ISO/IEC 27013.
Therefore, the correct answer isB: ISO/IEC 27013, as it is explicitly published for this purpose.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Who determines the number of days required for a certification audit?
- A. The lead internal auditor from the organization to be audited
- B. Both the management representative and the external auditor together
- C. The external auditor from the Certification Body who will undertake the audit
- D. The management representative from the organization to be audited
Answer: C
Explanation:
Certification audits are carried out byCertification Bodies (CBs), not the organization itself. ISO/IEC 27001 requires external certification audits to be independent, impartial, and objective. According to ISO/IEC 27006 (Requirements for bodies providing audit and certification of ISMS), the Certification Body determines the audit duration and number of audit daysbased on factors such as organizational size, complexity, scope, and risk environment. This ensures consistency across organizations and prevents manipulation by the auditee. ISO/IEC 27001 Clause 9.2 and 9.3 addressinternal audit and management review, but the determination of certification audit days is outside the organization's control; it rests solely with the accredited Certification Body auditors. Thus, answer: Bis correct, as the CB's external auditor formally calculates and assigns the audit time.
NEW QUESTION # 44
What is the definition of a threat according to ISO/IEC 27000?
- A. A single or a series of unwanted or unexpected information security events
- B. The risk remaining after risk treatment
- C. A potential cause of an unwanted incident which can result in harm to a system or organization
- D. A weakness of an asset or a control that can be exploited
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27000 standards:
According to ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.74, athreatis defined as:
"Potential cause of an unwanted incident, which can result in harm to a system or organization." This definition directly matches option A.
* Option B refers to an "information security incident" (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.32).
* Option C describes a "vulnerability" (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.67).
* Option D refers to "residual risk" (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.61).
The standard emphasizes that threats exploit vulnerabilities, causing incidents that can harm information confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Correctly identifying threats is critical for risk assessment (Clause
6.1.2). Thus, the correct definition per ISO/IEC 27000 isA.
NEW QUESTION # 45
When are the information security policies required to be reviewed, according to the Policies for information security control?
- A. According to a schedule defined by the Certification Body
- B. At planned intervals and if significant changes occur
- C. Every six months
- D. Annually
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.5.1 (Policies for information security) specifies:
"Information security policy and topic-specific policies should be defined, approved by management, published, communicated to and acknowledged by relevant personnel and relevant interested parties, and reviewed at planned intervals and if significant changes occur." This clearly identifies the review frequency requirement: planned intervalsandwhenever there are significant changes. Options A and B (six-monthly or annually) are not prescribed by ISO - timing is left to the organization. Option C is also wrong, since Certification Bodies do not dictate policy review schedules.
Therefore, the verified correct answer isD.
NEW QUESTION # 46
To whom are the information security policies required to be communicated, according to the control in Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?
- A. Only staff with accountability for ISMS operation
- B. Relevant personnel and relevant interested parties
- C. Top management
- D. Employees within the scope of the ISMS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.5.1 (Policies for information security) clearly specifies:
"Information security policy and topic-specific policies should be defined, approved by management, published, communicated to and acknowledged by relevant personnel and relevant interested parties..." This means the communication obligation is not limited to top management (A) or only ISMS staff (B), nor does it stop at employees only (C). Instead, ISO/IEC 27001/27002 mandate a broader scope: allrelevant personnel and relevant interested partiesmust be informed. This ensures both internal stakeholders (employees, contractors, temporary staff) and external interested parties (suppliers, partners, regulators, customers, etc.) receive the right policy communications where applicable. Therefore, the correct and verified answer isD.
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which activity is an operational planning and control requirement?
- A. Perform information security risk assessments at planned intervals
- B. Document information security objectives
- C. Review the consequences of unintended changes
- D. Scheduling of second party audits
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 8.1 (Operational planning and control) requires organizations to:
"Ensure that changes are controlled. The organization shall review the consequences of unintended changes, taking action to mitigate any adverse effects, as necessary." This requirement ensures that operational processes are planned, controlled, and adjusted where unexpected changes occur. Risk assessments (B) are covered in Clause 6.1.2 (Planning), not operations. Scheduling second-party audits (C) is not an ISMS requirement but part of supplier/customer arrangements. Documenting objectives (D) belongs to Clause 6.2 (Planning).
Thus, the required operational planning and control activity is A: Review the consequences of unintended changes.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which attribute is NOT a required focus of continual ISMS improvement?
- A. Suitability
- B. Adequacy
- C. Effectiveness
- D. Importance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 10.2 (Continual Improvement) specifies that the organization must"continually improve the suitability, adequacy and effectiveness of the information security management system." This makes it clear that three attributes are explicitly required to be addressed:
* Suitability: ensuring the ISMS continues to meet organizational needs in changing contexts.
* Adequacy: ensuring the ISMS covers the necessary scope and provides sufficient control coverage.
* Effectiveness: ensuring the ISMS achieves intended outcomes in protecting information security.
The word"importance"is not part of the continual improvement requirement. Importance is implicit in prioritization of risks and actions, but it is not a required continual improvement attribute in ISO/IEC 27001.
Therefore, optionD: Importanceis the correct choice as it is not specified.
This distinction reinforces that continual improvement is not about subjective importance, but about systematic enhancement of the ISMS'ssuitability, adequacy, and effectiveness.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which trend in information security performance is required to be considered during a management review of the ISMS?
- A. Decisions related to continual improvement opportunities
- B. Relevant external and internal requirements changes
- C. Achievement of information security objectives
- D. Validity of information continuity controls
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 9.3.2 (Management Review Inputs) states that management reviews shall include:
"c) information on the information security performance, including trends in: (1) nonconformities and corrective actions; (2) monitoring and measurement results; (3) audit results; and (4) fulfilment of information security objectives." This makesachievement of information security objectives(option A) a required trend to be considered.
While external/internal requirements (C) and continual improvement opportunities (D) are also part of management review inputs, they are not specifically listed under "trends in performance." Option B is outside the direct requirement.
Thus, the verified answer isA.
NEW QUESTION # 50
To whom does the scope of the Terms and conditions of employment control apply?
- A. Employees only
- B. All employees, contractors and third-party users
- C. Contractors only
- D. Personnel and the organization
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.6.1 (Terms and conditions of employment) states:
"The contractual agreements with employees and contractors shall state their and the organization's responsibilities for information security." This means the control applies not just to employees, but also contractors and, where relevant, third-party users who are subject to contractual obligations with the organization. The goal is to ensure thatall parties engaged in work under the organization's control understand their security responsibilities before, during, and after employment or contract engagement.
Options A and B are too narrow, excluding key groups. Option C misrepresents the scope by implying a mutual responsibility but not identifying the individuals covered. The explicit scope includesemployees, contractors, and third-party users.
Therefore, the correct answer isD.
NEW QUESTION # 51
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